On Tue, 2005-08-23 at 23:02 -0500, Mike McCarty wrote:
My company had no contractural relationships with Company B whatsoever.
Well, I was trying to follow your logic. You changed it in your follow up.
Based on that, you _did_ sell products that were marketed with Company B's trademark? Correct?
No. There were no such agreements. There was exactly one piece of software (in many parts) owned wholly and completely by my company. Nothing was owned by Company B which Company A acquired by any means whatsoever.
Again, please re-iterate in the A, B, C?, D? nomenclature.
A is the software developer/reseller B are the clients C is the trademark holder (even if ex-post-facto) D is someone who licensed something to A (?)
Did A use C's trademark publicly? Did A use C's trademark in any context? Is there a D? Is D the company that originated the name (now trademarked)?